aufin Posted November 10, 2015 Posted November 10, 2015 What's wrong with getting some plain pg and diluting the nic pg down to a lower level before starting to mix in the vg and flavors? Makes sense to me ..... unless I'm missing something.
Compenstine Posted November 10, 2015 Posted November 10, 2015 That would only make a higher PG ratio because he would be adding more of the nicotine base to get his 16mg.
aufin Posted November 10, 2015 Posted November 10, 2015 Dilute the 72 nic down to something more reasonable in a separate bottle/container/whatever before adding any vg or flavor. How's that resulting in a higher pg ratio?
Compenstine Posted November 10, 2015 Posted November 10, 2015 At 72mg Nic this would be his mix for 30ml. Notice the Ratio:If he diluted his Nic base to say 50mg with PG this would be the resulting PG/VG ratio for the same mix:
FXRich Posted November 10, 2015 Posted November 10, 2015 I didn't think about diluting the base, which I do all the time. That's why I use VG base.
Compenstine Posted November 10, 2015 Posted November 10, 2015 I do as well but, as you said, I work with 100% 100mg VG base as well. I have a lot of high VG customers and I just can not achieve a high VG ratio unless I use a VG Base for the nic.
FXRich Posted November 10, 2015 Posted November 10, 2015 (edited) Using 72mg nic PG base he would have to lower the nic level to 14.4 to achieve a 40PG/60VG mix, or 7.2 nic to get a 30PG/70VG mix. Edited November 10, 2015 by FXRich
Compenstine Posted November 10, 2015 Posted November 10, 2015 Exactly, he would have to lower his total mg of nicotine over all to get a higher VG. By doing that he cuts the amount of overall PG in the mix so he can raise his VG content.
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